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IBPS-CLERK-X-PRE-EXAM-2020-Eng Flipbook PDF
IBPS-CLERK-X-PRE-EXAM-2020-Eng
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INFORMATION HANDOUT
ONLINE PRELIMINARY EXAMINATION FOR CLERICAL CADRE IN PARTICIPATING ORGANISATIONS
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INTRODUCTION This booklet contains details pertaining to various aspects of the Online Preliminary Examination you are going to take and important instructions about related matters. The answers will be indicated online, hence you should carefully read instructions regarding the method of indicating answers. You are advised to study this booklet carefully as it will help you in preparing for the examination. •
Before appearing for the examination you should strictly ensure yourself that you fulfill the eligibility criteria stipulated in the advertisment in all respects.
•
Please note that since this is a competitive examination, mere passing is not adequate. You have to obtain a high rank in the order of merit to get eligibility for future selection process. You should, therefore, put in best efforts in the examination.
Online Preliminary Examination : Online Preliminary Examination consisting of Objective Tests for 100 marks. This test would be of 1 hour duration consisting of 3 Sections as follows : Name of the Test
No. of Questions
Max. Marks
Time allotted for each test (Separately timed)
1.
English Language
30
30
20 minutes
2.
Numerical Ability
35
35
20 minutes
3.
Reasoning Ability
35
35
20 minutes
Total
100
100
60 minutes
Sr. No.
The candidates shall be required to qualify in each test as per cut-off marks determined in each test. Each candidate will have to secure a minimum score on each of the tests as well as on the Total to be considered to be shortlisted for Main Examination. Depending on the number of vacancies available, cutoffs will be decided and candidates will be shortlisted for Main Examination. However decision of IBPS in this regard shall be final and binding upon the candidates. The time for the test is 60 minutes however you may have to be at the venue for approximately 130 minutes including the time required for entry, logging in, collection of the call letters, going through the instructions, exiting the lab etc. All the questions will have multiple choices. Out of the five answers to a question only one will be the correct answer. You have to select the most appropriate answer and ‘mouse click’ that alternative which you feel is appropriate/correct. The alternative/ option that you have clicked on will be treated as your answer to that question. There will be penalty for wrong answers marked by you. For every wrong answer marked by you, 1/4 of the marks assigned to that question will be deducted as penalty.
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Some sample questions are given below.
SAMPLE QUESTIONS Below are given some sample questions for each of these tests. The type of questions are only illustrative and not exhaustive. In actual test you may find questions on some or all these types and also questions on the type not mentioned here.
English Language This is a test to see how well you know English. Your English language ability would be tested through questions on grammar, vocabulary, sentence completion, synonyms, antonyms, comprehension of a passage, etc. Study and answer the sample questions given below : Directions : Pick out the most appropriate word from amongst the words given below each sentence to complete it meaningfully. Q.1.
He quickly glanced .............................. the book to find what it said about the Indian economy. (1) at (2) through (3) in (4) to (5) over
The correct answer is “through” which is answer No. 2. Q.2. Q.3.
The counsel urged the court to ........................... down the obnoxious law. (1) enact (2) enforce (3) cancel (4) strike
(5) declare
The local official ........................... the Minister of the situation. (1) explained (2) warned (3) apprised (4) told
(5) intimated
Directions : Read each sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence. The number of that part of the sentence is your answer. If there is no error, the answer is (5). Q.4.
I am twenty / two years old / when I first / joined the bank. (1) (2) (3) (4)
No error (5)
The error is in (1). Therefore the answer is ‘1’. Q.5.
To the Hindus / the Ganga is / holier than / any other river. (1) (2) (3) (4)
No error (5)
In this question, there is no error; therefore the right answer to this question is ‘5’. Q.6.
Of all the teachers / in our school / our class teacher / were very strict. (1) (2) (3) (4)
No error (5)
Directions : In each of the following questions, select from amongst the five alternatives, the word nearest in meaning to the word given in capitals. Q.7.
Q.8.
Q.9.
LETHAL (1) light (4) cruel
(2) dangerous (5) thoughtless
(3) deadly
CENTENARY (1) a guard (4) hundred runs
(2) a hundred years (5) hundredth anniversary
(3) a very old man
TRIUMPH (1) conquer
(2) smash
(3) earn
(4) brave
(5) capture
Directions : In each of the following questions, select from amongst the five alternatives, the word most opposite in meaning of the word given in capitals. Q.10. LIVELY (1) simple
(2) weak
(3) dull 3
(4) angry
(5) moron
Q.11. INADVERTENT (1) adequate
(2) available
(3) sluggish
(4) negligent
(5) intentional
Q.12. INEPT (1) accurate
(2) skilful
(3) sensible
(4) artistic
(5) apt
In addition, there will be questions based on passage, to test your comprehension.
Numerical Ability This test is designed to measure how fast and accurate you are in dealing with numbers, viz. computation, quantitative reasoning, interpretation of tables and graphs etc. Q.1-3. Study the following table carefully and answer the questions given below –––– Distribution of 1000 candidates as regards their marks in written examination out of 300 and interview out of 100 in a selection examination INTERVIEW MARKS
Written Examination Marks
Below 30
30-39
40-49
50-59
60-69
70 & above
260 & above
8
18
26
18
26
4
210 to 259
5
4
30
22
10
9
160 to 209
16
10
45
56
18
9
110 to 159
28
42
100
190
15
5
60 to 109
35
115
20
8
7
5
Below 60
32
32
20
4
6
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Q.1. How many candidates did obtain more than 69 percent marks and above in both written examination and interview ? (1) 22 (2) 49 (3) 13 (4) 9 (5) Other than those given as options Q.2. If approximately 325 candidates were to be qualified in the written examination, what should be the percentage of the qualifying marks ? (1) above 20 (2) above 70 (3) above 36 (4) above 63 (5) Other than those given as options Q.3. About 42 percent of the candidates fall in which of the following ranges of the interview marks ? (1) 110-159 (2) 110 & below (3) 50 to 70 (4) 50 & above (5) Other than those given as options Some of the questions may require arithmetical reasoning. For example : Q.4. At 10 paise each, how many paise will 6 lemons cost ? (1) 6 (2) 10 (3) 60 (4) 610
(5) Other than those given as options
Q.5. Which of the following can be exact multiple of 4 ? (1) 27114 (2) 58204 (3) 48402 (4) 32286
(5) Other than those given as options
Q.6. If the profit made by selling a pen for Rs.10 is as much as its cost, what is the cost price of the pen ? (1) Rs.3/(2) Rs.5/(3) Rs.10/(4) Rs.20/(5) Other than those given as options Also, there may be some questions based on graphs and tables.
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Q.7-9. Directions : Given below is a table showing percentages out of a total of 700 employees ranking six attributes that help promotion. Rank I is the highest. Study the table carefully and answer the questions that follow : Attribute
Q.7.
Percent of Employees Giving Different Ranks I
II
III
IV
V
VI
Seniority
32
17
22
19
5
5
Perseverance
14
19
17
9
27
14
Efficiency
15
19
21
14
14
17
Intelligence
10
14
10
14
17
35
Honesty
24
17
7
9
27
16
Sociability
5
14
23
35
10
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Which attribute for promotion has received the highest rank ? (1) Perseverance (2) Seniority (3) Honesty (4) Sociability
(5) Efficiency
Notice the percentage for rank I given in the table. You observe that seniority is the attribute with the highest percentage. So your answer is “Seniority”, which is answer No. (2) Q.8.
How many employees gave rank III to intelligence ? (1) 119 (2) 98 (3) 77
(4) 70
(5) 10
Look at the intersection of the column giving percentage for rank III and the row giving percentage for intelligence. You find that 10 percent of the 700 employees have given rank III to this attribute. 10% of 700 is 70. So your answer should be (4). Q.9.
Which attribute is considered the least important for promotion ? (1) Honesty (2) Intelligence (3) Perseverance (4) Efficiency
(5) Sociability
Referring to the percentage for VI rank, you find that intelligence is the attribute which receives the highest percentage. In other words, a majority of people consider it as the least important and give it the last rank. Therefore your answer is (2).
Reasoning Ability This is a test to see how well you can think and also to judge your aptitude/ knowledge for working with computer. It contains questions of various kinds. Here are some sample questions. Directions : In each of the following questions, there are five letter groups or words in each question. Four of these letter groups or words are alike in some way, while one is different. Find the one which is different. Q.1.
(1) black
(2) red
(3) green
(4) paint
(5) yellow
Of the five, ‘black, ‘red’, ‘green’ and ‘yellow’ form a group as they are names of colours. ‘paint’ is not the name of a colour. Therefore, (4) is the answer. Now try to solve the following questions. Q.2.
(1) BC
(2) MN
(3) PQ
(4) XZ
(5) ST
Q.3.
(1) Mango
(2) Apple
(3) Orange
(4) Guava
(5) Rose
Directions : In each of the following questions, there is a question mark in which only one of the five alternatives given under the question satisfies the same relationship as is found between the two terms to the left of the sign :: given in the question. Find the correct answer. Q.4.
Foot : man : : hoof : ? (1) leg (2) dog
(3) horse
(4) boy
(5) shoe
In the above example, ‘hoof’ has the same relationship with ‘horse’ as ‘foot’ has to ‘man’. Hence the answer is (3). 5
Now study to solve the following questions. Q.5. Q.6.
Day : Night : : Kind : ? (1) Dark (2) Bright
(3) Cruel
(4) Generous
(5) Gratitude
Hut : Mansion : : Rabbit : ? (1) Hole (2) Carrot
(3) Elephant
(4) Small
(5) Rat
Now try the following questions. Q.7.
If the letters in the word TOPS can be rearranged to form a meaningful word beginning with O, the last letter of that word is your answer. If more than one such word can be formed, M is the answer and if no such word can be formed, X is the answer. (1) T (2) P (3) M (4) S (5) X
Q.8.
‘Some leaders are dishonest. Satyapriya is a leader.’ Which of the following inferences definitely follows from these statements ? (1) Satyapriya is honest (2) Satyapriya is dishonest (3) Some leaders are honest (4) Leaders are generally dishonest (5) Satyapriya is sometimes dishonest
Q.9.
If ‘A ” B’ means ‘add B to A’, ‘A ’ B’ means ‘subtract B from A’, ‘A # B’ means ‘divide A by B’ and ‘A ✶ B’ means ‘multiply A by B; which of the following gives the average sales of two days where S1 and S2 are the sales of the first and the second day respectively ? (1) (S1 ’ S2) # 2 (2) 2 # (S1 ” S2) (3) (S1 ” S2 # 2) (4) (S1 ✶ S2) # (S1 ” S2) (5) Other than those given as options
Q.10. Every person above eighteen years of age who is registered as a voter, can vote. To find out whether Madhu, who was born twenty years ago, can vote, which of the following further information is needed ? (I) Madhu’s date of birth (II) Whether Madhu is registered as a voter (1) Only I (2) Only II (3) Either I or II (4) Neither I nor II (5) Both I and II Q.11. In each question below are given two statements followed by two conclusions numbered I and II. You have to take the two given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts, consider the two conclusions; together and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the two given statements, disregarding commonly known facts. Statements : All machines are windows. All windows are clouds. Conclusions : I. All machines are clouds. II. All clouds are machines. (1) None follows (2) Only I follows (3) Both I & II follow (4) Only II follows (5) Either I or II followsmentioned here.
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DETAILS OF THE ONLINE EXAMINATION PATTERN 1.
Total duration of examination is 60 minutes. [20 minutes extra for every 60 minutes (1 hour) of the examination time for candidates with disability eligible for compensatory time.]
2.
The clock will be set at the server. The countdown timer in the top right corner of screen will display the remaining time available for you to complete the examination. When the timer reaches zero, the examination will end by itself. You will not be required to end or submit your examination.
3.
The Question Palette displayed on the right side of screen will show the status of each question using one of the following symbols: You have not visited the question yet. You have not answered the question You have answered the question You have NOT answered the question, but have marked the question for review The question(s) “Answered and Marked for Review” will be considered for evaluation. The Marked for Review status for a question simply indicates that you would like to look at that question again. If a question is answered and Marked for Review, your answer for that question will be considered in the evaluation.
4.
You can click on the “>” arrow which appears to the left of question palette to collapse the question palette thereby maximizing the question window. To view the question palette again, you can click on “ 99.14° F) or displaying any symptoms of the virus, they will not be allowed entry into the venue. 11 In candidate registration : a. Candidate registration will be done through photo capture. Photo captured will be matched with the photo uploaded by you in the application. You must NOT change your appearance from the photo uploaded by you. b.
Photograph will be taken while candidate is standing.
c.
Seat number will be given to the candidate.
12 Rough sheet, call letter and ID proof management • Rough sheet(s) kept at each candidate desk will be used by candidate. •
Candidate must follow the instructions related to dropping the call letter with the ID proof copy in the boxes provided at the exit of lab/venue while leaving or at the designated place. Those candidates who avail the services of Scribe should submit Scribe form also along with the Call Letter and ID proof copy
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Candidate must drop the rough sheets, call letter, ID proof copy in the boxes provided at the exit of lab/ venue while leaving or at the designated place indicated by Exam officials.
13 Post Examination Controls • On completion of examination, the candidates will be permitted to move out in an orderly manner one candidate at a time. Please wait for instructions from invigilator and do not get up from your seat until advised.
WISH YOU GOOD LUCK ★★★★★★★★
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